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French Trotskyite front runner Jean Luc Melenchon has claimed that "France has never been richer but the money is just divided up badly". But is this true for Western economies? I looked at GDP figures and he's wrong, France's GDP peaked in 2007 and has not recovered but it is close and it is true that over a 50 year period France is 4x as well off. I looked at GDP / head and it follows a similar trend. but it feels like something is wrong with all these figures. Is it housing costs? but they are taken into account in inflation, at least the rental component.